James 2:14ff : verse 14 (Post 3)

James 2:14
What good is it, my brothers, if a man claims [lego] to have faith but has no deeds? Can such faith save him? (NIV)

What does it profit, my brethren, if a man says he has faith but has not works? Can his faith save him? (RSV)

What use is it, my brethren, if a man says he has faith, but he has no works? Can that faith save him? (NAS)

What does it profit, my brethren, if someone says he has faith but does not have works? Can faith save him? (NKJV)

Thus begins our consideration of James 2:14ff. Noted here are four common yet differing versions of our text.

Excluding the so-called "dynamic equivalence" of the NIV, where it takes obvious liberty translating "lege" (from "lego") as "claim" (1343 occurrences in the Greek text, all but a handful being translated with "say" and its cognates, the others translated as "named"; never translated "claim" in NKJV, NASB, ASV, and RSV), the first question is fundamentally the same in the given instances.

Yet in the second question we find different and important variations that weigh heavily upon its interpretation. In the above examples we are met with three modifiers to "faith" and one with no modifier at all. Respectively we have "such faith", "his faith", "that faith", and merely "faith".

That commentators have painted this someone's faith as merely professed and spurious should be surprising to no one. This has been the overwhelming tradition (with a few notable exceptions). It is unfortunate that the theology of the pundits (and the translators) have colored their interpretation. They bolster their claims here by the insertion of the modifiers "such" or "that" to "faith". Is this a legitamate understanding and translation?

The introduction of words like "that" or "such" as qualifiers for "faith" is really an evasion of the text. The Greek does not support this sort of translation. There really is no corresponding Greek word for either or these.

Nevertheless, support for the renderings "such faith" or "that faith" is usually said to be found in the presence of the Greek definite article with the word "faith". But in this very passage, the definite article also occurs with "faith" in verses 17, 18, 20, 22, and 26 (in verse 22 the reference is to Abraham's faith!). In none of these places are the words "such" or "that" proposed as natural translations. As is well known, the Greek language, like Spanish and French, often employed the definite article with abstract nouns (like faith, hope, love, etc.) where English cannot do so. In such cases we leave the Greek article untranslated. The attempt to single out 2:14 for specialized treatment carries its own refutation on its face. It must be classed as a truly desperate effort to support an insupportable interpretation.

Why must the Lordship Salvation advocates so intensly defend their position that the faith in view here must be spurious? For two reasons: 1) to evade the text and 2) in order to propagate their view that eternal salvation is not by faith alone apart from works.

They dodge the text here. LS has desired this passage to be talking about eternal salvation (salvation from hell) so that they can promulgate their heresy of faith works (a faith that is not apart from works) being necessary for final salvation. Yet, is this passage truly talking about it?

Allow me to paraphrase 2:14: "Suppose that someone admits to faith yet he cannot point to acts of obedience (the kind that James has been discussing in 1:26-2:13), what then? Can he expect salvation (of the kind in which James is talking about) to come through his faith if he is not a 'doer of work' (1:21)?" In other words, as per the Greek text (and the NKJV), "Can faith save him?" Notice James' stark, clear, and poignant question! Can faith alone save the man?

Actually the question in Greek implies its own answer and might be better translated, "Faith can't save him, can it?" The expected response is, "No, it can't!" But, of course, faith can and does save when we are speaking of eternal salvation (e.g. Ephesians 2:8, 9). But here -as James makes plain- faith cannot save under the conditions he has in mind.

Thus in James 2, the writer plainly makes works a condition for the salvation he here is describing. The failure to admit this is the chief source of the problems supposedly arising from this passage for most evangelicals. We ought to start by admitting it. And we ought then to admit that James cannot be discussing salvation BY GRACE! But instead of admitting these points, most interpreters dodge them, as we have shown.

What have we seen so far?

1) Lordship Salvation proponents twist James' words and meaning here. They do so by both adding to the text and evading the text.
A) They add to the text by including modifiers to "faith" that both the context and Greek language do not support.
B) They evade the text by shunning its clear meaning that faith will not save in the sense that James is speaking.
2) James is manifestly speaking of a "salvation" that is not by faith alone ("Can faith save him?" implied and intended answer in Greek, as per construction, is "NO!").

James' statements cannot be willed away. As clearly as language can express it, faith by itself does not "save," acording to James.

But save from what?

We shall examine this issue in the next installment.